Bible Q&A: May 2009 Archives

Why is it thought that Christ was poor? In fact, Jesus was rich, His uncle being Joseph of Arimathea. Joseph had his wealth in shipping. That is how Christ was able to have transportation whenever he required it.

There is nothing in the NT to suggest that Joseph of Arimathea was related to Jesus at all. Jesus himself, of course, says at one juncture that he has nowhere to lay his head, and when asked his judgment on paying taxes to Caesar, he does not even have a coin to examine so he can discuss the matter. The evidence we have certainly suggests that Jesus was poor by any culture's standards.

--Ben Witherington III

Who or what is the immoral woman mentioned in Proverbs 2:16-19?

The woman in question is called a 'strange' woman in the Hebrew text. Then, in what follows in Prov. 2.17-19, it is made clear that she is an adulteress, one who has violated a marriage which was arranged for her when she was a teenager. The advice given may in fact suggest that the woman has gone so far as to become a prostitute, for it speaks of 'those' who go to her, referring to more than one. It is also possible, indeed likely, that the term 'strange' indicates we are also dealing with a foreign woman.

--Ben Witherington III

In the history of the Bible, how many times was the holy book revised? During the revision, is there any possibility that God's verses were amended to suit the needs of the scholars concerned?

The Bible has not really been revised over the ages, as you are suggesting. However, words and passages have at times been miscopied or mistranslated.

If you are wondering if there has been a scholarly conspiracy to amend the Bible to suit particular theological views, the answer is basically no, unless you are dealing with versions like the New World Translation by the Jehovah's Witnesses.

But bear in mind that every translation is already an interpretation of the original language text, and scholars do debate what the proper translation of this or that foreign word or phrase may be. Words only have meaning in context, and as with English, many Greek or Hebrew words have multiple possible meanings. Only careful study of the context helps determine what the inspired author may have meant.

--Ben Witherington III

Why has the church begun ordaining women? Deborah and Esther and Ruth were not priests. There is no indication of women pastors, bishops, or priests in the New Testament.

Galatians 3:28 ("there is neither male nor female") refers to salvation; 1 Corinthians 14 indicates Paul's rigid stance is not his command but rather God's: "The women are to keep silent in the churches; for they are not permitted to speak, but are to subject themselves, just as the Law also says."

In the first place, the Old Testament priesthood is a very different (and all-male) institution compared with the various forms of ministry listed in the New Testament, which involved both men and women. There were women prophetesses, teachers, preachers, and pastors in the New Testament era, and there may even have been women apostles (see Romans16:7 in the NRSV).

Clearly enough, Paul had both men and women co-workers. Priscilla and Aquila were a ministry team that taught Apollos, according to Acts 18:24-26. Romans 16:1 refers to Phoebe as a servant of the church at Cenchreae, and the term "servant" is used elsewhere by Paul to refer to his own pastoral roles (Romans1:1). Paul calls Euodia and Syntyche (Philippians 4:2) his ministerial co-workers and addresses them as leaders in the Philippian church, a church that is said to be led by bishops and deacons (Philippians 1:1).

As for 1 Corinthians 14:33-36, this refers to women interrupting the worship service with leading questions during the time of the weighing of the prophets' utterances. Paul is correcting a specific problem here, a misuse of a woman's right to speak in church. He had already affirmed they had the right to pray and prophesy in worship in 1 Corinthians 11.

--Ben Witherington III

What does the Bible say about death? Do we immediately go to heaven, or is our soul in an interim existence?

A text like 2 Corinthians 5:1-10 makes evident that Paul believes that for the believer, to be absent from the body is to be present with the Lord. Since the Lord is in heaven, this suggests that a faithful believer immediately goes to heaven when he or she dies.

--Ben Witherington III

I am doing a Bible Study on Revelation 1:1-20 and Revelation 2:1-29. What questions and answers might help me get started? I recommend that you not study as complicated a book as Revelation without some study helps. In particular, I...

The word "God" is used without regard for meaning. In most formal religions the texts that talk about "God" use the male, singular term and follow it with pronouns "He, His, Him". Why? Words only have meaning in contexts, not...

What is the biblical standpoint on divorced church leaders, like pastors, youth pastors, etc.? Some scholars would interpret 1 Timothy 3:1-12 to rule out the possibility of divorced clergy. However, the key phrase here--"the husband of one wife"--could refer to...