Translations are now officially and unofficially connected to tribes, and it is not a little bit humorous and also at times quite sad. Sometimes it sounds like culture wars, and that is sad. Today I want to make one point, draw a sweeping conclusion, and then offer a good illustration.
Here's my point: the authority is the original text, not the translation. The original texts are in Hebrew and Aramaic (Old Testament) and Greek (New Testament). The authoritative text is not in English, regardless of how accurate the translation. No matter which translation you prefer, it is not the authoritative text for determining which translation is best. Yes, we need more to devote more time to study of the original languages.
The sweeping conclusion is this: unless you can read the original languages, you should avoid making public pronouncements about which translation is best. Instead, here's my suggestion: if you don't know the languages and can't read them well enough to translate accurately on your own but you want to tell your congregation or your listeners which translate is best, you need to admit it by saying something like this: "On the basis of people I trust to make this decision, the ESV or the TNIV or the NRSV or the NLT is a reliable translation."
Here's an example, and it's a good one. The translations of James 3:1 translate in two ways:
NIV: "Not many of you should presume to be teachers, my brothers..."
NASB: "Let not many of you become teachers, my brethren..."
ESV: "Not many of you should become teachers, my brothers..."
NLT: "Dear brothers and sisters, not many of you should become teachers in the church..."
TNIV (same NRSV): "Not many of you should presume to be teachers, my brothers and sisters..."
Pretty obvious, isn't it? NIV and NASB and ESV translate with "brothers" while the NLT and TNIV have "added" or "clarified" or "included" [women in the audience] by adding "and sisters." This is not a debate about which of them has a better theology or about which one is more inclusive but about which one is more accurate to the original Greek. The fact is this: the Greek word behind this, adelphos or "brother," sometimes refers to a congregation of Christians, including men and women, and sometimes refers only to males (but there is a Greek word for male and James did not use that; gender is not the most important thing in his mind; spiritual kinship is).
Sure, the NLT and the TNIV are more inclusive, but that's not quite the point. The point is which one best represents the intent of the original Greek, which has the Greek word adelphos? Unless you know what adelphos means in Greek, in the broad swath of the New Testament's use of adelphos and how it is used in the Greek-speaking (not to mention Hebrew-reading world) and about how James uses the word adelphos, any judgment is rooted in theology or theory but not in evidence. If you don't know the Greek, avoid standing in judgment. I'm not trying to be a hard-guy or an elitist, but let's be honest: only those who know Latin should be talking about which is the "best" translation of Virgil or only those who know Middle High German should be weighing in on the "best" translation of The Nibelungenlied. This isn't elitist; it's common sense.
We could get into the "intent" of translation, but that's another post. Our intent today is simple: to press upon everyone that there is a distinction between the text and a translation of the text. The authority is with the former; those who know that text are informed enough to decide about translations.
I'll tell you what I think here: there is no evidence in James that there were women teachers and that would favor the NIV and NASB and ESV; it is also likely that by "brothers" James is looking at the whole congregation (common enough usage of adelphos in James), favoring the NLT and TNIV. The Greek text has adelphos and the debate should revolve around what that word, in that world and in this context in James, means. [Other things can be discussed too, but my point is not to resolve the issue.] There is insufficient evidence to be dogmatic in this instance. If a translation wants to be "inclusive," then a little note at the bottom of the text could give readers a tip that "brothers" is another translation.
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Occasionally, the ESV footnotes the translation "brothers" as "Or 'brothers and sisters'".
Interestingly it does this for James 3:10 and 12 but not James 3:1....
"Here's my point: the authority is the original text, not the translation."
Wouldn't it be better to say that God has authority through the text? I just think it is really God who has the authority. If we were to separate God from the book, it would just be a book made of paper with ink.
Brian, you are not alone in raising this point. By "authority" I was not thinking of "Scripture's or God's authority" but of which text we go to determine what was said. The authority lies in the original-language text.
I'm a layman, don't know Greek and trying to determine what "brothers - adelphos" means in Matthew 13:55. In my limited study, I find that "adelphos" can range in spectrum from a blood brother/half-brother to kinsman or even all of mankind. Matthew knew exactly what he meant when he wrote his gospel but how do I ascertain what he meant? There are vastly differing opinions of what brothers means in this context. Is it important for us to know with certainty what this passage means? Are we to take this scripture and compare it with other scriptures to determine what it means?
Mark B, that text refers to Jesus' physical brothers, his brothers (and sisters are mentioned too) who were born to Mary. To be sure, many in the Church think Mary remained virgin after the birth of Christ. What tips the scales for me in this context is what when the term "brother" means something other than physical brother, something in the context provides a clue. There are no clues in this context.
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